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  • From: "Matthew Anstey" <manstey AT portal.ca>
  • To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: RE: Deut 32:25
  • Date: Sat, 13 Feb 1999 09:18:33 -0800


Gday Mark,

This is common in BH, its just the way the language is. Grammatical concord
of gender does not always occur. The reason the masculine verb can do this
is that it is unmarked, and so can cover both genders. The feminine verb is
marked, and so only covers feminine nouns. Just as in English up until 20
years ago (or so) "he" was unmarked for gender and "she" was marked. Now
both are marked (in most discourses).

Mark Joseph





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