Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Kevin L. Barney" <klbarney AT yahoo.com>]

Irene asks the reason for the emendation of "sons of Israel" to bene 
'el[im].  Although as she notes LXX provides indirect evidence, the "sons 
of God[s]" reading is actually attested in the DSS.  See P.W. Skehan, "A 
Fragment of the Song of Moses (Deut. 32) from Qumran," BASOR 136 (1954): 
12-15.

I think that originally this verse did portray YHWH as a Son of 'El, as 
Lloyd suggests, but that in its present Deuteronomic setting it has been 
reinterpreted to equate 'El/'Elyon with YHWH.

Kevin L. Barney
Hoffman Estates, Illinois
klbarney AT yahoo.com