Biblical Hebrew Forum

[a.c.smith AT juno.com (Andrew C Smith)]

>My question is on Malachi 1:3:  "Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated."  
>I've heard (as a Christian) a lot of discussion about the love of G-D
for
>everyone.  But I've never heard any discussion of His "hating" anyone. 
> Can someone please explain the use of the word "hate" in this verse and

>the reasoning behind its use?  Does G-D really "hate" anyone?  How do we

>know if He hates US, if WE are "Esau"?

I don't know the answer to this question, but maybe I can find a few
clues. The verb used for "hate" is quite clearly a verb of intense
dislike or even attack, so we can NOT explain away this problem by a
nuance of definition.

We might take this tactic: G-d doesn't hate "Esau" the person, but rather
"Esau" the political system, i.e., the kingdom of Edom. This would leave
the door open for G-d to love each individual person in that kingdom,
while attacking the political entity.

We could also consider a surgically pin-pointed "hate", i.e., that G-d
doesn't bear a long-standing hatred here, but rather at a specific time
and place, and for a specific reason, He directed His hate, i.e., in
concrete actions, toward Esau.

This use of "hate" parallels equally confusing and troubling uses of the
same word in the New Testament. Is there hyperbolic tendency to use
"hate" in ANE culture? Is this a Semitic linguistic trait? I don't know.

- A.C. Smith

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