Biblical Hebrew Forum

[John Ronning <ronning AT ilink.nis.za>]

Rolf Furuli wrote:

> BTW, if the
> above explanation is accepted [i.e Exod 3:14 is "I will be" not "I am"], 
> there is a
> huge gap between Exodus 3:14 and
> the EGW EIMI of John 8:58.

Dear Rolf,

Apparently the Jews who heard Jesus say what is translated by John as EGW 
EIMI would
not accept your explanation, since they picked up stones to stone him.  I 
also doubt
the LXX translators simply overlooked the fact that  'ehyeh normally means I 
will be.
Eric Weiss asked "HOW would one say in Hebrew at 3:14 "I AM THAT I AM"?  
Perhaps a
better question would be, "How would one say in Hebrew, `I am who I am, in 
the past,
present, and future' using the verb hayah to express existence?"  Is there a 
better
way than 'ehyeh 'asher 'ehyeh?  I think the LXX "I am he who (always) is" 
captures
this thought quite well.  BTW egw eimi found in John 8:58 is also in the LXX 
to
translate 'ani hu' (I am he) in Deut 32:39, Isa 41:4, 43:10, and 46:4.  'ani 
hu'
(normally would just be "present tense") is used with reference to the past 
and / or
future in Isa 41:4, 43:10, 43:13, 46:4, and 48:12).  These passages in Isaiah 
are
related by some to Exod 3:14, which if correct would reinforce the idea that 
Exod 3:14
is not to be confined to the future (or present).

You also wrote

"To translate EHYE in Exodus 3:14 as "I am" both ignores its lexical meaning 
and its
use as future, and is clearly
idiosyncratic."

Whatever the translation, it is clearly idiosyncratic - only God (or a 
blasphemer)
speaks this way (thus the intent to stone Jesus).

Christmas blessings,

John Ronning