Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Lee R. Martin" <lmartin AT vol.com>]

I know we have discussed 1 Samuel before, but please allow me to ask a few specific questions.

 

1- What is the significance of the vayyiqtol, "VaYeHi" in verse two?  Is it mainline in the narrative, or is it mainline in a sub-narrative, vis imbedded narrative.

 

2- The habitual yiqtols and veqatals seem to be used in the same way, the writer's choice depending upon whether or not he wanted the verb in first place.  Do you see any difference in the two?

 

3- Why is the yiqtol used in v.7 (To'KaL), why not the qatal?

 

4- Why are yiqtols used in v. 8 indicating present actions, why not participles?

 

5- Vv. 10 and 11 both have an infinitive absolute with yiqtol. V. 10 is usually translated past tense, and v. 11 future.   Inf.+ yiqtol is usually future, so why is it used in v.10?

 

6- In verse 11, VaTo'MaR is not consecutive with VaTiDoR, it is contemporaneous, or, explanatory.  So, why use the vayyiqtol.  Why not use LeMoR?

 

7- Why is the veqatal (VeHaYaH) used in v. 12 instead of vayyiqtol (VaYeHi)?

 

Lee R. Martin