Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Jonathan D. Safren" <yonsaf AT beitberl.beitberl.ac.il>]

"Reinhard G.Lehmann" wrote:

Andrew C Smith wrote:
>
> The NIV translation of I Chronicles 13:6 moves from the past to the
> present mid-way through the sentence. To what extent is this justified or
> justifiable?

I am not sure whether I understand your question right (I have no NIV
at hand in my office) - but maybe you mean *YHWH yosheb hakkerubim asher
niqra shem*. IMHO both (*YHWH yosheb hakkerubim* and *asher niqra shem*)
are attributes to *'elohim*, which is a little bit clearer in 2 Sam 6:2
in another order. Than present is not real present but generalizing
(extratemporalis), which is in English (and German) indeed represented
by present tense.

Could you please explain what you mean by "generalizing (extemporalis)"?
I understand thatr these two forms do not have any specific tense, but
I have always understood such forms as niqra and yosheb as
participial forms, the former passive (nif'al) and the latter active (qal).
Where might I find some bibliography on this subject?
Yours,
Jonathan D. Safren
Dept. of Biblical Studies
Beit Berl College
44905 Beit Berl Post Office
Israel