Biblical Hebrew Forum

[ben.crick AT argonet.co.uk (Ben Crick)]

On Sat 12 Dec 98 (10:57:18), a.c.smith AT juno.com wrote:
> Certain manners of Hebrew pronunciation are refered to as "Ashkenazy".
> 
> Does this have anything to do with the man named "Ashkenaz" in I Chron
> 1:6?

 Dear Anthony,

 I think that Ashkenazi refers to the East European Jewish pronunciation.
 After the Flood the Japhetic tribes spread out northwards from Ararat
 into Europe:

 "Then God blessed Noah and his sons, saying to them, 'Be fruitful and
 increase in number and fill the earth'.... This is the account of Shem,
 Ham and Japheth, Noah's sons, who themselves had sons after the flood....
 These are the clans of Noah's sons, according to their lines of descent,
 within their nations. From these the nations spread out over the earth
 after the flood (Genesis 9:1; 10:1, 32 [NIV]).

 Ashkenaz 'aSh:Ka:NaZ is the patriarch mentioned first in Genesis 10:3.
 There is a Kingdom of Ashkenaz mentioned in Jeremiah 51:27.

 The Ashkenazi Jews are those from east and north Europe; the Sephardi
 Jews are those from Spain and thereabouts. Modern Hebrew tends to use the
 Sephardic pronunciation; hence, I imagine, your query...

 ShaLoWM
 Ben
-- 
 Revd Ben Crick, BA CF
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