Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Lee R. Martin" <lmartin AT vol.com>]

Isaiah 9:5 is written in past tense.  The interpreters (translators) have 
chosen to
use the future tense based on their belief  that it is a prophecy of  the 
future, esp.
regarding the Messiah. Some day I hope to study in more detail the prophetic 
view of
time, but it seems to me that the prophets spoke of things in the future as 
if they
had alread occurred.  IMHO, this figurative use of grammar should be 
translated
literally.  For what its worth, the LXX translates the vayyiqtol here with 
the present
tense. I wonder why.
Lee R. Martin

"Reinhard G.Lehmann" wrote:

> lakr wrote:
>
> > Is the verb YKRA (call) in Is 9:6(5)  what is considered a
> > Waw-consecutive ?
>
> You mean Is 9:5 WYKRA? Sure it is.
>
> > is there something in the grammar that causes the English
> > translations to use the future tense ?
>
> Sure there's nothing in the grammar, but maybe in the context.
>
> reinhard g.lehmann
>
>        *****************************************
>        Reinhard G. Lehmann
>        Lect. for Classical Hebrew and Aramaic
>        Johannes-Gutenberg Universitaet Mainz
>        D - 55099 Mainz
>        tel: +49 - 6131 - 39 3284
>        mailto:lehmann AT mail.uni-mainz.de
>        look at http://www.uni-mainz.de/~lehmann/link.html
>        *****************************************
>
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