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  • From: lakr <lakr AT netcom.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Isaiah 9:6 and YKRA
  • Date: Wed, 9 Dec 1998 18:07:49 -0800 (PST)


Please forgive this question if it reveals how little I know about
biblical Hebrew.

Is the verb YKRA (call) in Is 9:6(5) what is considered a
Waw-consecutive ?

From the description in SEOW page 226 (Rev Ed) it sure looks
like it to me because of the doubling of the yod.

Yet, I find this verb translated into the future tense in the
English translations.

I know that this is controversial and am not qualified to discuss
the pros and cons of this, but assuming this is the case,
is there something in the grammar that causes the English
translations to use the future tense ?


Sincerely,
Larry Kruper




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