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  • From: yochanan bitan <ButhFam AT compuserve.com>
  • To: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: veyiqtol vs vayyiqtol
  • Date: Sat, 5 Dec 1998 18:19:41 -0500


[rolf wrote]
that the short forms of the cognate
languages are not preterites (b) and that there is no difference between
yiqtols and wayyiqtols in unpointed texts (c)[end rolf]

this last point is irrelevant.
it only means that the unvocalized graphic system is underdifferentiated.
[the same argumentation could 'prove' that there were no distinctive
intonation patterns in BH and could go a long way towards getting rid of
vowels.]

one of the 'givens' for BH must be a veyiqtol vs vayyiqtol distinction.
there was no motivation or evidence of a 'massive massoretic conspiracy',
which would be necessary for removing the above distinction.
likewise, comparative semitic with lam yaktub forms showing up in arabic [a
short prefix past tense] show that this is a phenomenon that goes back to
the roots of west semitic.

by omitting a veyiqtol/vayyiqtol distinction your results will be
invalidated. talmy givon [linguist] asked great questions but got invalid
answers for exactly this reason [among others] in his twentyyear old word
order article.

blessings
randall buth



  • veyiqtol vs vayyiqtol, yochanan bitan, 12/05/1998

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