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Exodus 12

From: "Lee R. Martin" <lmartin AT vol.com>
To: Hebrew List <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Subject: Exodus 12
Date: Wed, 04 Nov 1998 14:31:54 -0500

I was reading Exodus 12 yesterday and I would be interested in
everyone's opinions regarding the following questions:
1-Verse 21 contains a series of three imperatives. Why were the last
two not presented by way of weqatals?
2-Verse 22 switches to weqatal, and the weqatals are used as
continuation imperatives (injunctives). Why not have three more
imperatives as in v.21?
3-Why does v.22 have the pronoun _We'aTeM_ before the negative LO? The
pronoun seems totally unnecessary.
4-At the beginning of v.24, does USHMaRTeM (weqatal) function as an
imperative or as future indicative? How do you know?

Lee R. Martin

Exodus 12, Lee R. Martin, 11/04/1998
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
- Re: Exodus 12, Bryan Rocine, 11/04/1998