Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Bryan Rocine" <596547 AT ican.net>]

Hi Rolf,

Ha! Ha!  NT Greek!  I am not well-versed enough in Gk to have a view!  But
even in my ignorance, I have a couple comments:  BH is not Gk.  I am in no
way trying to suggest that no languages grammaticize aspect.  I don't even
claim that BH does not grammaticize aspect.  The verbal participle is
imperfective.  Maybe the wayyiqtol is perfective.  That's all, though.  
Let me add (with my head drawn a bit inside my shoulders in anticipation of
a possible scolding) that I am under the impression that the Gk aorist is
typically used to move narrative time forward.  In my lingo, it is
typically the mainline verb form of a historical narrative like BH's
wayyiqtol.  Such aorists are perfective.  Now whether aorists can also be
used in clauses that are imperfective, I defer to you.  I wouldn't be
surprised that they can in which case perhaps we may refer to the
imperfectivity of the clause as derived.

Shalom,
Bryan 

----------
> From: Rolf Furuli <furuli AT online.no>
> To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
> Subject: Re: Verbs in Ps 18 ans 2 Sam 22
> Date: Sunday, September 06, 1998 3:24 AM
> 
> 
> Dear Bryan,
> 
> I have several objections to your definition of perfectivity and
> imperfectivity as a function of clauses rather than of verb forms. I will
> post these later. Now I have two questions: (1) The verbs of Prov
31:13-28,
> are they  perfective or imperfective, and what is the reason for the
> judgement? (2) As regards New Testament Greek, it is universally accepted
> that perfectivity and imperfectivity are connected with verb forms and
not
> with clauses. In your view, are all aorists perfective and all imperfects
> imperfective, or can both forms be perfective and imperfective, depending
> on the context?
> 
> Regards
> Rolf
> 
> Rolf Furuli
> Lecturer in Semitic languages
> University of Oslo
> 
> 
> 
B. M. Rocine
Associate Pastor
Living Word Church
6101 Court St. Rd.
Syracuse, NY 13208

315-437-6744(w)
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