Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Rolf Furuli <furuli AT online.no>]

Dear Bryan,

I have several objections to your definition of perfectivity and
imperfectivity as a function of clauses rather than of verb forms. I will
post these later. Now I have two questions: (1) The verbs of Prov 31:13-28,
are they  perfective or imperfective, and what is the reason for the
judgement? (2) As regards New Testament Greek, it is universally accepted
that perfectivity and imperfectivity are connected with verb forms and not
with clauses. In your view, are all aorists perfective and all imperfects
imperfective, or can both forms be perfective and imperfective, depending
on the context?

Regards
Rolf

Rolf Furuli
Lecturer in Semitic languages
University of Oslo