[Corpus-Paul] Was Romans written from Ephesus?

David @ Comcast davidinglis2 at comcast.net
Tue Jan 27 13:14:49 EST 2004

At 01:06 PM 1/26/06 Stephen Carlson wrote:

>At 03:05 PM 1/24/04 -0800, David @ Comcast wrote:
>>In the Greek the same one word - aspazomai - is used in all of vv. 3-16.
>>Strong's concordance defines this word (782) as: ". to enfold in the arms,
>>i.e. (by impl.) to salute (fig.) to welcome:- embrace, greet, salute, take
>>leave."  In other words, Paul is not sending greetings from himself to
>>people who have been in Rome for some time.  Instead, he is asking the
>>Christians in Rome to welcome, embrace, greet, or salute a group of
>Thanks for the suggestion; however, my lexical resources (BDAG and TWNT)
>ASPAZOMAI has acquired a specialized meaning of something like "send my
>greetings to."


If anything, I think BDAG and TWNT make my basic case even more strongly.
Either Paul was sending him own greetings, or he was asking a third party to
greet the people in vv. 16:3-15.  Whichever you believe more likely, it
still means that these people were already in Rome or on their way to Rome
(but definitely with Paul), and it also means that IHMO there is no need
whatsoever to suggest that Rom. 16 was not originally part of the epistle.

On the face of it, it seems pretty 'cut and dried' to me:  vv. 16-3:15
contain greetings *to* people, whereas vv. 16:21-23 contain greetings *from*
people.  So, I have to ask the question, why was it ever thought that the
people listed in vv. 16-3:15 were with Paul, and were sending their
greetings to people in Rome?

Dave Inglis
davidinglis2 at comcast.net
3538 O'Connor Drive
Lafayette, CA, USA

More information about the Corpus-Paul mailing list