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  • From: "Vince Endris" <vince_endris AT hotmail.com>
  • To: corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] partition theories and copying practices
  • Date: Mon, 08 Mar 2004 17:34:03 -0500

(Ian)
In particular, I am wondering whether any list
members
> know of evidence from the broader Greco-Roman world for this kind of
> dislocation in the ordinary process of scribal transmission.

(Richard)


Good question. You may like to review the discussion that we started on 18th
Oct 2003 on a very similar issue.



I was the one who asked the question to start this past thread, but, to my disappointment, no thread was started. Richard responded and reiterated the question to which no one gave an answer (I have included our posts to the bottom of this note.)
Again, I understand the theories and some of them sound very good. But what is the evidence that this was actually practiced other than the fact it would help us make sense of our letters?
vince



(past posts)

In his letter to Polycarp, Ignatius abruptly shifts his audience. The first
part of the letter is directed at Polycarp, but at 6 he suddenly turns to
the Smyrnaean Christians as a whole. It seems to me that Paul might be doing
something similar in 2 Corinthians. 2 Cor 10-13 might be directed at a
different city within Achaia, or at a different group within Corinth.

Many have suggested that 2 Cor was originally two or more letters, but do we
have precedents for the joining together of two letters in the ancient
world? This is an important question, and was raised by Vince last month. I
am surprised that the major commentaries on 2 Corinthians do not address
this question. Partition theories for 2 Cor (and Phil) are surely
sustainable only if the practice of combining letters can be shown to have
been common, or at least attested. Could someone point us towards some
possible precedents for the sort of editorial practice that many believe
resulted in 2 Cor?

Thanks,

Richard Fellows.

Vince Endris wrote:
I have read the partition theories of 1 and 2 Corinthians and Philippians.
Some of these are very convincing. My question is not on any specific
theory, but on partition theories in general. Do we have any evidence,
besides that some people think it would just make a lot of sense, that
this
actually happened in historical documents? Any historical documents?




From: Richard Fellows <rfellows AT shaw.ca>
Reply-To: Corpus-Paul <corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org>
To: Corpus-Paul <corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] partition theories and copying practices
Date: Sat, 06 Mar 2004 12:19:18 -0800

Ian,

> motive for doing it.

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