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  • From: "Anthony Buglass" <tonybuglass AT fish.co.uk>
  • To: "Corpus-Paul" <corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] RE: son of man
  • Date: Sun, 14 Dec 2003 09:10:39 -0000

Mark wrote:
The 1 Thess parallels are discussed by E. P. Sanders in The Historical
Figure of Jesus. Viking/Penguin, 1995. (I'm not at my office now so I
can't give the page refs.) My impulse is to say all these parallels
make it probable that Paul was quite familiar with apocalyptic Son of
Man Jesus traditions and chose to use kurios and other terms as good
"functional equivalents" with Gentiles. "Savior" was not a major one,
however, to judge from Paul's very low usage of that term (only Phil
3:20 in the Undisputeds?).

The Sanders ref is p180f. I just happened to have the book sitting on my
desk - thanks for the pointer.

Re kurios and soter - yes, I agree. Which probably points further to Paul's
language as deriving primarily from his Hellenistic Judaism rather than
mystery religions.

Re Jeff's point about GMark's audience: perhaps we should refine our picture
of the target audience into primary audience and included audience. If Mark
was written in Rome, we would expect substantially the same audience as
Paul - ie primarily Hellenist and increasingly Gentile. However, if it was
written in Palestine, we would expect a primarily Palestinian Jewish
audience with a number of Gentile or Hellenist converts. For Paul, I
suggest the proportions would be the opposite - mainly Hellenist and
Gentile, with a proportionately diminishing core of Jews. More
significantly, wherever Mark was written, it was more important for his
function in writing a Gospel to retain the sayings-tradition. For Paul's
purposes, that was less important. Especially of his churches already had
access to it through other documents.

Cheers,
Tony







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