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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Why tsere? (was ואילילה Micah 1:8)

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  • From: Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>
  • To: Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org, michaelgburk AT yahoo.com
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why tsere? (was ואילילה Micah 1:8)
  • Date: Tue, 23 Jul 2013 14:59:07 -0400

1. The NIYQUD is perplexing. It is conceivable that the different point marks are combinations to express certain compromises in the various reading traditions, and to also satisfy certain euphonic exigencies. 

2. I go out of the assumption that the dot in the letter, the dagesh, was already there when the NAQDANIYM came to add the external dot vowels. The dagesh served as an early, pre NIYQUD, reading cue for a patax, a xiriq, and a qubuc. No dagesh was thus needed in "full", or plene writing. This is what we call now the dagesh "forte". 

3. In case of a schwa following a patax, a xiriq, or a qubuc the dagesh was moved ahead one letter. This is what we call now a dagesh "lene". As we got the habit to automatically "harden" BGDKPT at the sight of an internal dot, the dagesh "lene" was retained for these letters, but was ignored for all other letters.

4. The same thing happened to the initial dagesh, which I think is but a remnant of a dot to mark the first letter of a distinct word.

5. Now, in אַשְׁבִּיתָה )$BYTH of Dt 32:26, there is a dagesh in the letter B, and hence the patax under the initial A. Because the word is written "full" with a yod following the B no dagesh is needed in the letter T. Similarly, there is a dagesh "lene" in the letter D of וָאַבְדִּילָה W)BDYLH of Ezr 8:24, but no dagesh "lene" in the letter L (not BGDKPT) of וְאַבְלִיגָה W)BLYGH of Job 9:27.

6. In Micah 1:8 we find אֶסְפְּדָה וְאֵילִילָה אֵילְכָה in which the segol is, methinks, a xiriq/tsere compromise (as in אֶצְבַּע ECBA, 'finger'), and where the tsere is due to the yod. 

Isaac Fried, Boston University

On Jul 23, 2013, at 6:54 AM, Pere Porta wrote:

he word in Mic 1:8 we dealt with some days ago, has tsere under the aleph.
Now,  some words are found in the biblical text having the same pattern (binyan, person, number...)...  And so,
)$BYTH, ashbytah (Dt 32:26)
W)BDYLH, w'abdylah (Ezr 8:24)
W)BLYGH, w'ablygah (Job 9:27)
All of these have PATAH under the aleph.
My question is:
is there any good reason for the tsere  -and not a patah--    under Tthe form in Mic 1:8?
 
Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)




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