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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Why tsere? (was ואילילה Micah 1:8)

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  • From: Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>
  • To: Will Parsons <wbparsons AT alum.mit.edu>
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org, michaelgburk AT yahoo.com
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why tsere? (was ואילילה Micah 1:8)
  • Date: Tue, 23 Jul 2013 12:54:04 +0200

Dear listers,
 
the word in Mic 1:8 we dealt with some days ago, has tsere under the aleph.
Now,  some words are found in the biblical text having the same pattern (binyan, person, number...)...  And so,
)$BYTH, ashbytah (Dt 32:26)
W)BDYLH, w'abdylah (Ezr 8:24)
W)BLYGH, w'ablygah (Job 9:27)
All of these have PATAH under the aleph.
My question is:
is there any good reason for the tsere  -and not a patah--    under Tthe form in Mic 1:8?
 
Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)

2013/7/22 Will Parsons <wbparsons AT alum.mit.edu>
On Sun, 21 Jul 2013 17:25:09 -0400, Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu> wrote:
> "People" did not write the HB. Spoken Hebrew has its purposes, and BH
> has its purposes.
> I doubt that King David mundanely spoke to his wives and children in
> BH.

Obviously, BH is a language made up just to write down the scriptures.

--
Will Parsons
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Pere Porta



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