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  • From: Philip <philipengmann AT yahoo.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] Time Difference B/n Exodus & Deuteronomy
  • Date: Wed, 30 Mar 2011 02:53:09 -0700 (PDT)

Thank you, for the clarification.

I have been trying to find out the time difference between Moses's giving of
the first law on Mt. Sinai (in Exodus) and his repeating of the law on Mt.
Nebo? (in Deuteronomy) just before his death, but have so far been
unsuccessful.

Can anyone help me please?

Many thanks,

Philip Engmann.

--- On Tue, 3/29/11, Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il> wrote:

From: Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why Deuteronomy is called "debarim" in the Hebrew Old
Testament?
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Date: Tuesday, March 29, 2011, 12:03 PM

Hi Philip,



Verses 4-5 state that "these things/words" were said when Moses had already
defeated Sihon and Og and was encamped in Moab, across the Jordan. In
Chapter 31 Moses begins his farewell speech. It is tradition that makes the
connection between the two. In my previous post I misquoted from memory.
Sorry.



Yigal Levin



From: Philip [mailto:philipengmann AT yahoo.com]
Sent: Tuesday, March 29, 2011 12:43 PM
To: Yigal Levin
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why Deuteronomy is called "debarim" in the Hebrew
Old Testament?




Thank you, Yigal.

Just for clarification, the phrase you say, BEFORE HIS DEATH is implied in
Dt 1.1? or does this occur in some OT versions. I don't seem to see that
phrase in the versions i have looked up.

Many thanks,

Philip.

--- On Sat, 3/26/11, Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il> wrote:


From: Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why Deuteronomy is called "debarim" in the Hebrew
Old Testament?
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Date: Saturday, March 26, 2011, 5:37 PM

Hi Philip,

While your statement may be true for Deuteronomy, it is slightly misleading,
for two reasons:

a. Not all of Moses' words to Israel are in Deuteronomy. The previous three
books contain a lot of Moses' words as well. What you need to emphasize is
the rest of verse 1: "the words which Moses spake unto all Israel...BEFORE
HIS DEATH". In Jewish tradition, in fact, the entire book of Deuteronomy was
said by Moses on the very day on which he went up to Mount Nebo and died.

b. To the uninformed, your explanation might imply that all of the Hebrew
titles of the books somehow summarize their content, and this is not true.
As Pere wrote, the names of the five books of the Torah are simply the first
significant word in the book. In fact, so are the names of all of the 54
weekly "portions". The first portion of Genesis is Bereshit, just like the
name of the book. The second portion of Genesis in Noah, not because it
tells of the Flood (which it does), but because its first verse (Gen. 6:9)
begins "These are the generations ("toldot") of Noah..". Today we read
"Shemini" ("eighth"), starting with Lev. 9:1 "And it came to be on the
eighth day...".


Yigal Levin

-----Original Message-----
From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Philip
Sent: Saturday, March 26, 2011 4:11 PM
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why Deuteronomy is called "debarim" in the Hebrew
Old Testament?

Thank you, Barry & Pere.

I think you have helped me to say what I wanted to say,namely that the
Hebrew title, "Debarim" summarizes reasonably well, the entire book of
Deuteronomy as captured in the first verse, "the words which Moses spake
unto all Israel..." Deut 1.1, KJV  (The title, "Deuteronomy" summarizes the
book in another way).

Is this a reasonable statement to make?

Many thanks,

Philip Engmann,



_______________________________________________
b-hebrew mailing list
b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew



_______________________________________________
b-hebrew mailing list
b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew




>From philipengmann AT yahoo.com Wed Mar 30 06:21:53 2011
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From: Philip <philipengmann AT yahoo.com>
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Subject: [b-hebrew] Comparison of Moses's first and second songs?
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Dear Listees,

I have been looking out (unsuccessfully so far) for any studies that compare
the first song of Moses in Exodus 15:1-19 to his second song in Deuteronomy
32.

Please has anyone come across any such study?

Very many thanks,

Philip Engmann




>From klriley AT alphalink.com.au Wed Mar 30 07:40:48 2011
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Time Difference B/n Exodus & Deuteronomy
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Approximately 40 years, according to the story.

Kevin Riley

On 30/03/2011 8:53 PM, Philip wrote:
> Thank you, for the clarification.
>
> I have been trying to find out the time difference between Moses's giving
> of the first law on Mt. Sinai (in Exodus) and his repeating of the law on
> Mt. Nebo? (in Deuteronomy) just before his death, but have so far been
> unsuccessful.
>
> Can anyone help me please?
>
> Many thanks,
>
> Philip Engmann.
>
> --- On Tue, 3/29/11, Yigal Levin<leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il> wrote:
>
> From: Yigal Levin<leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why Deuteronomy is called "debarim" in the Hebrew
> Old Testament?
> To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> Date: Tuesday, March 29, 2011, 12:03 PM
>
> Hi Philip,
>
>
>
> Verses 4-5 state that "these things/words" were said when Moses had already
> defeated Sihon and Og and was encamped in Moab, across the Jordan. In
> Chapter 31 Moses begins his farewell speech. It is tradition that makes the
> connection between the two. In my previous post I misquoted from memory.
> Sorry.
>
>
>
> Yigal Levin
>
>
>
> From: Philip [mailto:philipengmann AT yahoo.com]
> Sent: Tuesday, March 29, 2011 12:43 PM
> To: Yigal Levin
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why Deuteronomy is called "debarim" in the Hebrew
> Old Testament?
>
>
>
>
> Thank you, Yigal.
>
> Just for clarification, the phrase you say, BEFORE HIS DEATH is implied in
> Dt 1.1? or does this occur in some OT versions. I don't seem to see that
> phrase in the versions i have looked up.
>
> Many thanks,
>
> Philip.
>
> --- On Sat, 3/26/11, Yigal Levin<leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il> wrote:
>
>
> From: Yigal Levin<leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why Deuteronomy is called "debarim" in the Hebrew
> Old Testament?
> To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> Date: Saturday, March 26, 2011, 5:37 PM
>
> Hi Philip,
>
> While your statement may be true for Deuteronomy, it is slightly misleading,
> for two reasons:
>
> a. Not all of Moses' words to Israel are in Deuteronomy. The previous three
> books contain a lot of Moses' words as well. What you need to emphasize is
> the rest of verse 1: "the words which Moses spake unto all Israel...BEFORE
> HIS DEATH". In Jewish tradition, in fact, the entire book of Deuteronomy was
> said by Moses on the very day on which he went up to Mount Nebo and died.
>
> b. To the uninformed, your explanation might imply that all of the Hebrew
> titles of the books somehow summarize their content, and this is not true.
> As Pere wrote, the names of the five books of the Torah are simply the first
> significant word in the book. In fact, so are the names of all of the 54
> weekly "portions". The first portion of Genesis is Bereshit, just like the
> name of the book. The second portion of Genesis in Noah, not because it
> tells of the Flood (which it does), but because its first verse (Gen. 6:9)
> begins "These are the generations ("toldot") of Noah..". Today we read
> "Shemini" ("eighth"), starting with Lev. 9:1 "And it came to be on the
> eighth day...".
>
>
> Yigal Levin
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
> [mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Philip
> Sent: Saturday, March 26, 2011 4:11 PM
> To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why Deuteronomy is called "debarim" in the Hebrew
> Old Testament?
>
> Thank you, Barry& Pere.
>
> I think you have helped me to say what I wanted to say,namely that the
> Hebrew title, "Debarim" summarizes reasonably well, the entire book of
> Deuteronomy as captured in the first verse, "the words which Moses spake
> unto all Israel..." Deut 1.1, KJV (The title, "Deuteronomy" summarizes the
> book in another way).
>
> Is this a reasonable statement to make?
>
> Many thanks,
>
> Philip Engmann,
>
>
>
> _______________________________________________
> b-hebrew mailing list
> b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
>
>
>
> _______________________________________________
> b-hebrew mailing list
> b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
>
>
>
>
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>
>
>




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