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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Shatnez: Wool and Linen, or Animal Fiber and Plant Fiber?

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  • From: James Christian <jc.bhebrew AT googlemail.com>
  • To: aaa AT endlyss.com
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Shatnez: Wool and Linen, or Animal Fiber and Plant Fiber?
  • Date: Sat, 13 Feb 2010 12:02:03 +0000

I offer the following contribution to the discussion.

Many times when I have found two conflicting traditions further inspection
has shown that both are correct in their own ways. It is a well known
fundamental linguistic truth that words have different uses and evolve in
different ways. Let's take the Greek word stauros as an example. In ancient
Greek it had many uses predominantly that of a wooden stake. In modern
Greek, largely catalysed by Orthodox Christian traditions the word pretty
much exclusively means cross.

In generic terms Shatnez most likely did mean mixes in general as the
Karaites assert and your example from Leviticus 19:19 shows. However, the
prohibition in Deuteronomy 22:11 clearly isn't talking about mixes in
general in this context. It is saying something like "You shouldn't wear a
mix of wool and linen together". Just like the evolution of the Greek
language forced by religious belief has caused the Greek word stauros to
completely change its primary usage it is highly likely that over the
centuries Rabbinic take on the Torah has caused Shatnez to lose its generic
sense and become the more specialised sense of 'wool and linen'.

In conclusion, I find the most highly likely answer that they are both right
and yet both not entirely right. The Karaites being right in the sense that
it was used of mixes in general. The Rabbis being right in the sense that
this prohibition was a very specific one. However, for Christians who are
circumcised in heart rather than in flesh as they are not under Mosaic law
but guided by the law of the spirit the question is what symbolic, prophetic
meaning what foreshadow what spiritual content and relevance to us could
this prohibition have?

James Christian

2010/2/12 Richard <aaa AT endlyss.com>

> The only other time the word appears is in Leviticus 19:19 talking of
> mingling unlike things whether seed, animals, or clothing so it seems to me
> at a quick look that the word shaatnez would not be the definition but it
> is
> very ambiguous. My take is that the Karaite view would be correct.
>
> Hopefully we will get more insight.
>
> Richard Conaway
>
>
>
>
> From: Brak [mailto:Brak AT neo.rr.com]
> Sent: Thursday, February 11, 2010 9:37 PM
> To: aaa AT endlyss.com; b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org >> Hebrew
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Shatnez: Wool and Linen, or Animal Fiber and Plant
> Fiber?
>
> What about just the clause "wool and linen"? Without looking into the word
> shatnez itself, and the phrase "wool and linen" be interpreted as the
> definition or example or ambiguous? Does the grammar support it to be one
> over the other (or even more than the other)?
>
> B"H
> John
>
> "He who makes a mistake is still our friend; he who adds to or shortens a
> melody is still our friend; but he who violates a rhythm unawares can no
> longer be our friend."
> -Ishaq Ibn Ibrahim 767-850 CE.
>
> "If you don't behave as you believe, you will end by believing as you
> behave."
> -Archbishop Fulton J. Sheen
>
> "The difference between the intelligent man and the simpleton is not the
> correctness of their decisions, but rather the cunning sinner can more
> skillfully defend and justify his iniquity."
> - Rabbi Tovia Singer
>
>
> Richard wrote:
> Everything I can find so far the word simply means "mixed stuff".
>
> Richard Conaway
>
>
>
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-hebrew-
> bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Brak
> Sent: Thursday, February 11, 2010 8:20 PM
> To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: [b-hebrew] Shatnez: Wool and Linen, or Animal Fiber and Plant
>
> Fiber?
>
> In Deut 22:11 it states:
> <LO) TIL:B.A$ $A75(A+:N"Z CEMER W.PI$:T.IYM YAX:D.FW00>
> "You shall not wear Shatnez, wool and linen together."
>
> My question is thus:
> Linguistically, is the phrase "wool and linen" a definition of Shatnez
> (according to Rabbinic Judaism) or an example of Shatnez (according to
> Karaite Judaism). Or is it ambiguous, and can be read either way?
>
> Thanks in advance
>
> --
>
> B"H
> John Steven
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