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  • From: "Phil Sumpter" <philsumpter AT hotmail.com>
  • To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Is yissa' in Ps 24:5 Jussive?
  • Date: Tue, 4 Aug 2009 21:03:36 +0200

Kirk,

thank you for your clear and helpful response. You concluded: "because then the noun phrase of v4 is just floating out there without belonging to any clause at all."

I'm afraid I still don't see why the noun-phrase can't just be the main clause. There are plenty of such noun-phrases which are self-contained clauses, aren't there. E.g. Gen 31:38 ("these twenty years I [have been] with you"). Isn't Ps 1:1-2 another example of such a self-contained clause, this time with a few relative clauses thrown in?

A final example, having read Harold's comments below, is Ps 15:2. Here we have the same structure, without the 'asher's. Doesn't v. 2, a string of noun phrases, count as a complete sentence?

Thanks for interacting.

Harold,

BDB calls the form an imperfect.

The jussive isn't always morphological observable. This is only the case in certain verb groups, such as hiphiels, III he verbs, and II -ayin/ II -yod/waw verbs.

It could be a jussive because it is clause initial and because the syntax is otherwise unusual.

As for Bibleworks, that is just one interepretation. A-F and Westminster Morphology, both on Logos, often disagree with each other.

Psalm 15 shows that you don't need a complete sentence when answering a question.

I think v. 2 is a complete sentence. Unlike in English, Hebrew doesn't need a verb to make it complete. The NET translation you give does just that.


I don't see an ounce of difference in meaning

If yissa' starts a new clause, it could be interpreted as a promise, like yimot in Ps 15:5b (as you note). If it is the predicate of v. 4, it is part of the answer to the question in v. 3. But in that case, it seems to be it would be an odd answer, a kind of indirect answer.

All the best

Phil Sumpter

http://narrativeandontology.blogspot.com/




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