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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] "Shaf`el" in Hebrew?

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  • From: "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
  • To: Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] "Shaf`el" in Hebrew?
  • Date: Thu, 03 Feb 2005 10:23:31 -0500

Peter:

Remember in a previous discussion I mentioned that I look at lexemes not so
much from their formal aspect, but more from their functional use?

Likewise, here I see )$R and $- prefix as functional equivelants, i.e. they
are almost perfect synonyms. It is my impression that $- prefix is used more
in poetry and )$R everywhere else in Tanakh. It acts as if it were a
contraction. That's what I notice. As a result, I missed your objections.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk AT qaya.org>

>
> On 02/02/2005 22:55, Karl Randolph wrote:
>
> > ... If we accept that $- in Judges 1:6 is a constraction for )$R, ...
> >
>
> Karl, I have twice in the last month or so outlined very strong
> evidence against this assumption. Please answer my arguments or
> stop making this assumption.
>
> As a reminder, I accept that $- is a synonym of )$R, and thus
> probably the rest of your argument here. But you ruin it by this
> unjustified and baseless assertion.
>
>
> -- Peter Kirk
> peter AT qaya.org (personal)
> peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
> http://www.qaya.org/
--
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