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  • From: "David Kummerow" <farmerjoeblo AT hotmail.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] Re: Hebrew "Nominative"
  • Date: Wed, 29 Sep 2004 16:21:35 +1000


Inter alios, Brockelmann, Noldeke, Ewald, Jouon (Muraoka did away with this in the English translation and revision), Davidson (I think) and Gibson all argued this way. I can't understand why they did - but then I approach the data having read the analyses of Zewi and Muraoka. Hindsight is often easier isn't it!

David Kummerow.


From: "C. Stirling Bartholomew" <jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net>
To: David Kummerow <farmerjoeblo AT hotmail.com>,<b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Re: Hebrew "Nominative"
Date: Tue, 28 Sep 2004 22:16:57 -0700

David,

On 9/28/04 4:26 PM, "David Kummerow" <farmerjoeblo AT hotmail.com> wrote:

> Personally, I don't like the resort to "pleonasm". I think it often avoids
> the issue and fails to give an account of a feature of the language. The
> words "I don't know" could often be substituted for the word "pleonastic".

Exactly. It is like saying the pronoun was "dropped" from this clause. The
pronoun wasn't dropped any more than HYH is dropped from a verbless clause.

>
> As for your examples, note that they are verbless clauses. It has been
> popular in the past to regard this use of hw' as a copula. However, I think
> Zewi and Muraoka argue convincingly that this is not the case.

How can a pronoun function as a copula? No need to answer this, since it
isn't correct but as Hellenist, the notion strikes me as strange.

See also my reply to Peter and Dave W.

thanks,
Clay Bartholomew

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