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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Fw: Aramaic to them?

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  • From: "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
  • To: "Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Fw: Aramaic to them?
  • Date: Tue, 02 Mar 2004 18:07:50 -0500

Sorry, Peter:

I should have been more clear.

In the same way that Europeans were studying Latin for centuries after it was no longer spoken outside of academia, church and government, so I understand that the first century study in Judea and Samaria would have had Hebrew as the cornerstone of their education. Likewise, just as only a small minority actually achieved fluency in Latin in Europe, so only a minority (though probably somewhat larger) actually achieved fluency in Hebrew.

The pattern I was looking at was not the specific language, but the pattern of language acquisition and usage.

Karl W. Randolph.


----- Original Message -----
From: Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>

On 01/03/2004 09:37, Karl Randolph wrote:

>Peter:
>
>...
>The classical Gymnasium program was very >strict: first Latin,...
>
>That’s why the editors of the BHS expected >knowledge of Latin. And it is this pattern >that is one of the evidences why I don’t >think the common people in Judea and Samaria >spoke Hebrew in the market, on the street or >at home.
>
> >
Thanks for your comments about Germany in the 1970s. But what on earth is the relevance to Judea and Samaria in the 1st century CE? Surely you are not claiming that Jews had to learn Latin before Hebrew?


--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/


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