You wrote:
>>>
For example, there is evidence that the vowel shewa used by the Masoretes
was pronounced as an "a"-sound and not an "e"-sound.
>>>
Rolf,
If what you write above is true, wouldn't that indicate that Jerusalem
would have been pronounced Yarusalem (at one time)?
Rolf,
You also wrote:
>>>
Personally I would say that when the NIV substitutes YHWH with "the
LORD," the translators are then blaspheming the name. There are two
reasons for my bold claim,
1) the translators have violated a fundamental rule of translation
because of their own theological
views,
>>>
Rolf, It seems to me that English translators translate Hebrew word
#3068 as they do, because of the theological views of the Jewish people,
not because of their own theological views.
It seems to me that English translators of Hebrew word #3068 are "caught
between a rock and a hard place" because Hebrew Scholars claim that
Hebrew word #3068 is not supposed to be pronounced "as it is written",
rather it is to be pronounced "Adonai" .
All the NIV translators seem to have done is to sort of rewrite Hebrew
Word #3068, into Hebrew as "Adonai", and then to translate "Adonai" into
English as "the LORD", using instructions provided them by Hebrew
Scholars.
Of course they wrote Lord as the LORD ( in small capitals) to indicate to
the English reader that they were following Jewish rules, as to how to
read "Hebrew word #3068 [ i.e. (Y)Jeho(W)vah], which it taught by Hebrew
sources to be an example of Qere Perpetuum.
Dave Donnelly
snip/snip
>>>
The name of God was known in the past,
and we still know that the only personal name of the creator is expressed
by the four consonants
YHWH. What we do not know is which vowels were used when it was
pronounced and their timbre.
But that is the same with other ancient Hebrew names as well.
The Masoretes vocalized these other names, and their system of vowels
seems to be close to the system used by those who wrote the DSS.
But still we cannot know exactly how these proper names were pronounced.
For example, there is evidence that the vowel shewa used by the Masoretes
was pronounced as an "a"-sound and not an "e"-sound.
The lack of knowledge of how a Hebrew name exactly was
pronounced, is no argument in favor of substituting the name with
another word, and the same is true with the name of God-it is as yet
known!
I am not sure what you mean by your question about blaspheming.
But an account of how this could occur is found in Leviticus 24:15,16
(NIV).
The key words here are "curses his God" and "blasphemes the
name of the LORD (YHWH), which seem to be parallel phrases.
Any wrong and unworthy use of the name of God, both in the past and in
the
present is the same as blaspheming the name.
Personally I would say that when the NIV substitutes YHWH with "the
LORD," the translators are then blaspheming the name.
There are two reasons for my bold claim,
1) the translators have violated a fundamental rule of translation
because
of their own theological views, and
2) the unique identification that only can be used for the creator of the
universe-his personal name YHWH-is taken away and concealed, and an
appellative, which can refer to many different persons, is used instead.
Thus, an important part of the dignity and uniqueness of God is taken
away.
>>>
Snip/snip
Best regards,
On Mon, Mar 8, 2010 at 1:58 PM, Dave Donnely wrote:
> For example, there is evidence that the vowel shewa used by the Masoretes
> was pronounced as an "a"-sound and not an "e"-sound.
>>>>
> Rolf,
> If what you write above is true, wouldn't that indicate that Jerusalem
> would have been pronounced Yarusalem (at one time)?