The name was known and used (pronounced) in everyday speech in the
days of the first temple (cf. the Lakish letters). It was also used
in the days of the second temple, but sometime during this time the
superstition arose that caused some groups not to use the name. There
is evidence that the Qumran people did not use the name, and there is
evidence that the Pharisees and Morning-bathers continued to use it.
Exactly when different groups stopped using (pronouncing) the name is
unknown. Even as late as the first part of the first century C.E.
the name may be used by some; evidence to the contrary is lacking.
The name of God was known in the past, and we still know that the
only personal name of the creator is expressed by the four consonants
YHWH. What we do not know is which vowels were used when it was
pronounced and their timbre. But that is the same with other ancient
Hebrew names as well. The Masoretes vocalized these other names, and
their system of vowels seems to be close to the system used by those
who wrote the DSS. But still we cannot know exactly how these proper
names were pronounced. For example, there is evidence that the vowel
shewa used by the Masoretes was pronounced as an "a"-sound and not an
"e"-sound. The lack of knowledge of how a Hebrew name exactly was
pronounced, is no argument in favor of substituting the name with
another word, and the same is true with the name of God-it is as yet
known!
I am not sure what you mean by your question about blaspheming. But
an account of how this could occur is found in Leviticus 24:15,16
(NIV). The key words here are "curses his God" and "blasphemes the
name of the LORD (YHWH), which seem to be parallel phrases. Any wrong
and unworthy use of the name of God, both in the past and in the
present is the same as blaspheming the name.
Personally I would say that when the NIV substitutes YHWH with "the
LORD," the translators are then blaspheming the name. There are two
reasons for my bold claim, 1) the translators have violated a
fundamental rule of translation because of their own theological
views, and 2) the unique identification that only can be used for the
creator of the universe-his personal name YHWH-is taken away and
concealed, and an appellative, which can refer to many different
persons, is used instead. Thus, an important part of the dignity and
uniqueness of God i taken away.
BTW, Neither in the days of the first temple nor the second temple is
there any evidence that to pronounce the name was the same as to
blaspheme it. All passages in the Tanakh dealing with the name tell
that it should be used (pronounced); some even say that the name
always should be used.
Best regards,
Rolf Furuli
University of Oslo
Hi Rolf , do we have any consensus as to what does constitute
blasheming the name of the Lord. I assume that we agree that the
name is as yet unknown , as such how could we blaspheme such name.