But ?$r doesn't work in Biblical syntax in this way. ?$r generally stands between the subordinate clause and the main sentence, as a connection between the two. If the subordinate clause needs to refer to the antecedent it uses the 3s pronoun. HALOT provides (in the entry on ?$r) Is 5:28 and Ps 95:5 as examples of this.
As far as "without", the general word is bl(dy, possibly prefixed with m-. A nice similar example is Gen 41:44. Thus, to say "without which" in normative Biblical Hebrew, one should write "?$r bl(dyw" instead. Indeed, if one replaces "mbly ?$r" with these words, the sentence sounds a lot more "normal."
The use of "mbly ?$r" therefore rings of the sound of some foreign influence, as if a speaker of a foreign language, very possibly some IE language, tried to say "without which" but did not use the appropriate Hebrew syntax, and used instead his own native language syntax.
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