Peter:Well, Karl, it is an interesting possibility that some people of Semitic background used the Greek future, at least when translating Semitic materials, not so much as a future tense but with more of the aspectual meaning which Gesenius and I are describing for the Hebrew YIQTOL. But I don't know if this has been proved, or even of any real evidence for it, such as if a clearly non-future YIQTOL were translated with a Greek future in LXX etc.
My purpose is not to discuss the Greek verbal system. Rather to
discuss the use of translations as a guide to understanding Hebrew.
Seeing as it is demonstrable that some of the authors of the New
Testament had less than a literary command of the Greek language, and
I suspect the same is true of some of the LXX translators, could the
use of the grammatical future tense have been understood by those
authors as something other than the future (e.g. continuous present)?
If so, how far can we use those translations as a guide as to how
those people understood the Hebrew language?
Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.