On 12/04/2007 00:30, K Randolph wrote:
> ...
> With this as a background, how much can we trust the classical
> understanding of Greek verbal usages to inform us how the authors of
> the LXX and New Testament used the same? And how the Hebrew was
> understood at that time?
>
>
Karl, this is certainly not the place to discuss the Greek verbal
system. Suffice it to say that the LXX translators, quoted by the NT
authors, used here a Greek future tense. This probably but not certainly
implies that the LXX translators understood this passage as having
future application, although not necessarily distant future. But then
there is good reason to think that the LXX translators had less than
perfect command of Hebrew. They may well have translated verb tenses on
the basis of their presupposed interpretations of passages as much as
from what the Hebrew actually meant. So, here and more generally, they
are an informative but not reliable guide to the meaning of the original
Hebrew verbs.
--
Peter Kirk
E-mail: peter AT qaya.org
Blog: http://www.qaya.org/blog/
Website: http://www.qaya.org/
Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.