...Karl, this is certainly not the place to discuss the Greek verbal system. Suffice it to say that the LXX translators, quoted by the NT authors, used here a Greek future tense. This probably but not certainly implies that the LXX translators understood this passage as having future application, although not necessarily distant future. But then there is good reason to think that the LXX translators had less than perfect command of Hebrew. They may well have translated verb tenses on the basis of their presupposed interpretations of passages as much as from what the Hebrew actually meant. So, here and more generally, they are an informative but not reliable guide to the meaning of the original Hebrew verbs.
With this as a background, how much can we trust the classical
understanding of Greek verbal usages to inform us how the authors of
the LXX and New Testament used the same? And how the Hebrew was
understood at that time?
Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.