Hello Peter,
I am curious about your statement about WAYIH:YW = become as opposed to
'were.' What do you think is the difference btw Judges 16:30 and Genesis
2:25?
WAYIH:YW $N"HEM `RWMMIYM.... would you translate this as "They became
naked.." or am I misreading your point? Thanks
--
Kelton Graham KGRAHAM0938 AT comcast.net
-------------- Original message -------------- From: Peter Kirk <peter AT qaya.org>On 03/10/2006 18:08, Chris and Nel wrote:... I am so used to reading sentences without "to be " in them that I still can not fathom its purpose here, considering that without it I actually arrived at the correct translation without looking at the English.The distinction may be that sentences in which "to be" is omitted are usually (always?) stative, indicating a continuing state, like English "be", whereas those starting with WAYHIY, and here with its plural form WAYIHYUW, indicate actions, like English "became". Thus a literal translation would be "And the dead... became more than the dead...". The meaning is of course "More people died... than...", an action. A translation like Kelton's "Those who were dead ... *were* many, more than..." is misleading because it suggests a state, a count of bodies already dead. But in fact we have an action here, a large number of people dying. (Dare I suggest a prototype of today's suicide bombers, except here we have an Israelite killing Gentiles in Gaza?)
Now can someone be kind enough pleeeease..... to relieve me of my making a fool of myself on this board?
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