Hey thanks for the reply, it has always been my understanding that hayah did correspond to the 'b verb' in english. Like for instance Waltke & O'Conner says on pg 72.
In a verbless (or nominal) clause there is no verbal marker of predication. Hebrwe, like many other languages, including Latin and Classical Greek, may predicate an adjective or noun directly, without a copula (i.e some form of hayah, which corresponds to English 'to be'). So that is how I have always seen it, not to be say this is a trump card or anything but just my understanding of it and where it came from. And with regards to Gen 2:25 when you said "they came into a state of being naked." Were'nt they already naked? It does not seems to me that they were becoming nake but already naked. Another example I'd like to get your opinion on is 2 Chr 20:25.
vayih:yw yamiym $:lo$h boz:ziym , it looks to me that the verb is functioning more like a past progressive 'were plundering.' What are your thoughts?
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Kelton Graham
KGRAHAM0938 AT comcast.net
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