You make the assumption that if a word is found in Greek as well as aP.W. : There is nothing I can answer if you believe that Daniel is true prophecy. So I suppose it is the same for Noah's prophecy concerning Japhet dwelling in the tents of Shem (Gn. 9) and of Bileam about the fleats coming from Kittim (Nb. 24). Kittim is the son of Yavan, son of Japhet, all of them impersonating the Greeks; to me it is strong evidence of late writing of the Torah. Or it is true prophecy , but I don't believe it.
Semitic language, that it had its origin in Greek (or proto-Greek). I
don't agree with that assumption (for one, I find it chauvenistic and
two, there are no historical nor linguistic reasons to make that
assumption). It is common that the names of objects are adopted into
new languages with technology transfer, e.g. "computer" is known world
wide. Who had the technology first? Often we don't have enough data to
answer. Therefore you cannot assert that these were Greek instruments,
therefore Daniel was a late writing.
My understanding is that the only reason that Daniel is dated late by
several authors is because his descriptions are too detailed to be
chance, yet are accurate. But the prophecy of the seventy sevens of
years, starting with the rebuilding of Jeursalem under Nehemiah ca.
415 BC give or take a few years, ending in a time of a seven year war,
midway through which the sacrifices were stopped (the temple was
destroyed) and other details, either Daniel was written after the
Jewish revolt of 67 AD or this is true prophecy.
Karl W. Randolph.
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