I recall that "will" acquired its future tense auxiliary role in ME. Thus, at some point it shared functions of independent verb abd tense auxiliary. At that time, "What wilt thou?" is a close analogy to idiomaically employed future tense in Hebrew.The verb "will" certainly had two different uses, one as a future auxiliary and one as an independent verb. Both uses are common in the King James Bible. But the two uses are clearly distinct, already by 1611, both in syntax (the future auxiliary has no "to" before the following verb, which is mandatory with the independent verb form)
but there is no "to" in "What wilt thou?"
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