...Michael, I am not sure quite what you are getting at here. Perhaps you need to distinguish more clearly between exegesis, which is usually understood as finding out the meaning intended by the original author, and the meaning of this passage which may be applied today, to your life and to that of those around you. Or maybe you are understanding exegesis as trying to find the meaning intended by God as the ultimate author of inspired biblical texts - and assuming a harmony in God's intentions between the Hebrew Bible and the New Testament. As an evangelical Christian, I would agree with you on this last assumption (although of course many on this list would not), but would consider it presumptious to try to find God's ultimate meaning for a text rather than that of the human author.
Oh come now Revd Crick, is it possible to leave MT Psa
8:5 “as is”? Or even desirable? Then what have you
got?
To arrive at *meaning* for a biblical text,
interpretation must be employed, right? People have
gone to other HB passages . . . even books to shed
light on MT Psa 8:5.
And a Jew might draw from usage, quotes, and/or
allusions to said passage in the Mishnah, Midrashim,
Targumim, Rashi, etc. Correct? He/she might even dip
into the NT along the way for its say on a text’s
history of interpretation.
How much more Christians!
I understand that you are trying to sensitively avoid
pushing Christian beliefs on a biblical Hebrew forum
open to members of various communities. But where the
NT touches on a topic germane to Hebrew, why take the
long way around? NT evidence is at least that:
evidence.
--Michael Millier
Manila, Philippines
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