Ben Crick wrote:Then you have the plain literal meaning of the text. And yes, it is both possible and desirable.
was trying to leave aside the NT interpretation, and stay with Psalm 8:5 "as is".
Oh come now Revd Crick, is it possible to leave MT Psa
8:5 �as is�? Or even desirable? Then what have you
got?
To arrive at *meaning* for a biblical text,All depends on what sort of "meaning" you are trying to find. Do you want to know what the text actually says, or do you wish to know what others interpreted it to say years afterwards?
interpretation must be employed, right?
And a Jew might draw from usage, quotes, and/orAnd much of what they would find in Rabbinic would be counter productive if one is trying to find the plain meaning of the text, as the Rabbis often chose drash over pshat.
allusions to said passage in the Mishnah, Midrashim,
Targumim, Rashi, etc. Correct? He/she might even dip
into the NT along the way for its say on a text�s
history of interpretation.
But where theBut evidence of what? The NT bears very little on what the Psalter wrote several hundred years earlier. The NT can tell you what some first century Jews felt these texts mean, but it will be of little use in ascertaining what the plain meaning of the psalm is.
NT touches on a topic germane to Hebrew, why take the
long way around? NT evidence is at least that:
evidence.
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