Peter,In these matters very little can be proved absolutely, as arguments from silence are never completely certain.
Would it then be a thoroughly correct and empirical statement to INSIST that
there is no reasonable argument in existence that can even suggest the
possibility that either vowel pointing or square script was being used in
the time that Moses wrote (or his personal scribe) wrote hebrew.
Do scholars have access to sufficient documentation that safely precludes
such INSISTENCE that a possibility might arise to the contrary.
Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.