Dear Peter Kirk,You misunderstand me. The illustrious model has not disappeared, it is other parts of the Bible. Certainly the details will be controversial, but the kind of model I have in mind is:
this sounds like a very nice logical argument:
I continue to reject this conclusion. Firstly, the premise is not true as there are differences in style and language. But even if it were true, there is nothing to stop skilled authors in later centuries and quite different places from deliberately mimicking the style of the earlier books. To show this, consider that a skilled writer in America could today produce texts which are stylistically identical to Shakespeare (I don't say with the same artistic merit), but that does not prove that they were written in 16th-17th century England.
But where is the equivalent for this than given in the case of biblical literature. If
it should be as you assume of a later date and copying some older prestigious models,
where are these models "Vorbilder" we know nothing of?
Since this kind of literature ought have existed at the time point of the creation of
that "later" biblical material, where has the illustrous model disappeared
and why?
All the best,
Bányai Michael
Stuttgart
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