I think you should reconsider your choice of examples. ...
As for the mobility of the Hebrew people, I seem remember reading
several articles to the effect that Galilean Hebrew was dialectically
different than that of Jersualem both in the Old Testament period and in the
New Testament period.
Further, I suggested that if the language of the Hebrew Bible was indeed
uniform, and that there were no editorial process involved, then the work
would appear to have been written in very limited chronological and
geographical limits. Personally, I don't subscribe to the possibility that
it was so limited as to eliminate dialectical differences. I would be more
prone to think that we simply have a limited ability to recognize those
differences.
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