Kata Markon

["Joe A. Friberg" <JoeFriberg AT email.msn.com>]

This discussion is being carried over from a thread initiated in the B-Greek
forum (original thread: Re: Is it a question or not), and concerns whether
the demonized man of Mk 1.24 refers to 'himself + demon' or 'himself +
crowd' when he speaks as "us".  At this point the discussion is moving
towards the larger function of this passage in Mark.

One piece of evidence previously overlooked that supports the inclusion of
the people of Capernaum in the plural reference of "us" is found in his
vocative: "Jesus *of Nazareth*".  This appears to specifically highlight and
localize the 'us vs. you' mentality which the man espouses, focusing
regional prejudices.  If the people of Capernaum were not included in his
"us", it really would not matter where Jesus was from--I doubt that demons
are that sentimental about regionalisms.

God Bless!
Joe Friberg

P.S. I have just finished going through my inbox and discovered an email
from Mark Proctor stating the same opinion as above with some additional
comments, and I intend to forward it to the list after obtaining permission.