Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Barry <nebarry AT verizon.net>]

I find this statement rather...incredible. What it tells us is how the 
translator, involved in both linguistic communities, conceptualized the 
verbs. In Isaiah 44:24 we have him rendering with both present substantive 
participles and aorist main verbs. I don't think we can ignore this, and how 
the ancient translators (especially the LXX and Jerome) rendered these has to 
inform our own theories with regard to Hebrew verbs. The fact that there is 
not a "one-to-one correspondence" is in itself an important datum.

N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Sent from my iPad
Personal opinions expressed in this email do not reflect any institution with 
which I may be affiliated

> 
> RF: There is not a one-to-one correspondence between the Hebrew verb forms 
> of the Tanakh and the Greek verb forms in the LXX. Therefore, in my 
> opinion,  the use of verbs in the LXX tells us nothing about the meaning of 
> the verbs in the Hebrew text.