Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

George:

On Tue, Oct 30, 2012 at 6:49 PM, George Athas <George.Athas AT moore.edu.au> wrote:

Karl, your last post didn't really tackle the issues. The pattern you spot for the use of the paragogic nun is morphological, not syntactical or semantic.

Admittedly, it’s morphological, but does it have a semantic import?

Part of what I’m doing in this discussion is thinking out loud, or in this case through my fingers. As I am musing the issue, it appears that the pattern is not random, rather has some pattern to it. But what does it signify, if anything?

 

But you seem to be attaching a syntactical or semantic significance to it. It's possible, yes. But it's not a necessary conclusion. You haven't demonstrated the necessity of your conclusion, which makes it speculative.

If it is as subtle as a change in emphasis, and no more, then there’s no need for a necessity. As it is, there’s no question as to the fact that it’s attached to Yiqtol second and third person plurals.

 

Furthermore, you need to deal more specifically with the morphology,

What did I miss in the morphology?

 

as well as a diachronic analysis of the language.

Other than the split between the pre- and post-exile writers, where the paragogic nun, except in direct quotes from before the Babylonian exile, is found only four times : three times in Zechariah and once in Malachi. But before the exile some authors used it several times, others not at all. For example, of the three books written by Solomon, only two paragogic nuns are found, both in Proverbs. None are found in Song of Songs and Ecclesiaties. But there are quite a few in Psalms.

Previously I speculated that it may be a poetic morph, but the number of times it is found in prose, as well as how seldom it is found in some poetry, makes me hesitate.

GEORGE ATHAS

Dean of Research,

Moore Theological College (moore.edu.au)

Sydney, Australia

Karl W. Randolph.