Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Robert D. Rachlin" <rrachlin AT drm.com>]

I'd respectfully suggest that the BibleWorks ascription of -am to 2d person 
masc. possessive plural is a typo. It's clearly 3d person masc. possessive 
plural, as Michael translates the passage. It's an alternate to -hem.



Robert D. Rachlin
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Today's Topics:

   1. [Q] Psalm 70:20? (Michael)
   2. Derivation pattern? (K Randolph)


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Message: 1
Date: Sat, 24 Dec 2011 11:09:27 -0800
From: "Michael" <mtp1032 AT comcast.net>
Subject: [b-hebrew] [Q] Psalm 70:20?
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
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I was hoping someone could provide some guidance to me as to the grammar of
Psalm 73:20. Here's my translation (FWIW)

Like a dream from awaking, O LORD, when arising [their] tzalmam you despise.

(where tzalmam translates to 'image', 'phantom', 'shadow', etc.,)

In the MT text (I use BibleWorks), the word for image is marked as a
construct, singular noun with a 2nd person plural suffix. Yet, most
translations render the pronoun suffix as 'their', the 3rd person masculine
plural pronoun. OTOH, I can make no sense of  "your tzalmam" in the context
of the Psalm. Any help you can provide would be very greatly appreciated.

May you all enjoy a very blessed Christmas,

Michael




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Message: 2
Date: Sun, 25 Dec 2011 08:51:00 -0800
From: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
Subject: [b-hebrew] Derivation pattern?
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Dear B-Hebrew Haburim:


First of all, I wish all to have a good Hanukkah and Christmas.


Has anyone else noticed this pattern, or am I jumping to conclusions?


It seems to me that when Hebrew adds a suffix ?? -WN to a verb, that that
changes the verb to a noun having the meaning -ing that action. By
extension, that can include the object or person doing that action.


This is not a question of translating, as often in English there are other
words that can bring out the same meaning without using a gerund, often
much smoother in English as well, rather is this a pattern found in Hebrew?
And often not translatable?


E.g. ????? from ??? to be profitable, hence profiting, he who is profiting.


Another ????? being crazy.


The example that got me started today was ????? from ??? to be straight,
hence morally upright, leading to ????? referring to the person who is
acting straight, righteous.


When looking at this question, we need to be careful not to include verbs
that have ?? as part of the verbal root, such as ???, ???, ???, etc. or
loan words from other languages such as ?????, ?????, etc.


Has anyone else considered this question?


Karl W. Randolph.


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