Biblical Hebrew Forum

[David Kolinsky <yishalom AT sbcglobal.net>]

Karl,

The literal meaning of BRK is "to make a clearing / to go clear through"
The second of these does indeed suggest motion.  It can also be said as "to 
go clear through = surpass, excel." So BaRuwKh can mean "is excellent."  

With MiyN as in BaRuWkh KaBhoDh haShem MiMQoMo it could be understood as "the 
glory of haShem excels/radiates clear through from his place."  When we 
praise someone with BaRuKh we are essentially saying that they excel, have 
excelled or are excellent.  When we curse someone we are saying that they are 
outrageous, flagrant or repugnant.  In fact, the English word outrageous 
itself means "to push beyond bounds" and like BRK it is also used both 
positively and negatively.

As I am sure you know, the root BRK is also the base for the words
BaRayKhah = (clearing) a man made lake or
 pool  (SmII2:13; 4:12) 
BaRaKh = (make a cleared space) to kneel, bend the knee and hence knee

With regard to the sense of "to bless something or someone or make it prosper"
this can be understood as "to make someone / something prosper / excel / 
surpass"

or in terms of motion "to cause them to move beyond their current state"


David Kolinsky
Monterey, CA
--- On Tue, 10/4/11, K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com> wrote:

From: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
Subject: [b-hebrew] To Bless???
To: "B-Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Date: Tuesday, October 4, 2011, 1:28 PM

For some time there has been some controversy over the verb usually
translated as “curse” in Job 1:5 with even the claim made that the Masoretes
changed the text
 for politically correct reasons. But as I was reading 1
Kings 21:10 this morning, I was reminded of Ezekiel 3:12 where ברוך seems to
indicate some sort of motion, a departing from a place.

My question: are we dealing with a homonym, or at least a homograph, that
had a different meaning than blessing? How many other times would “take
leave of” be a more accurate translation to recognize that we are dealing
with a homonym, instead of “to bless” as it is commonly translated today? An
example 1 Kings 8:66?

Are there any clues from cognate languages that this might be the case?

Karl W. Randolph.
_______________________________________________
b-hebrew mailing list
b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew