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Re: [b-hebrew] What is the scholarly consensus about Isaiah 52:14?
- From: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
- To: kenneth greifer <greifer AT hotmail.com>
- Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
- Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] What is the scholarly consensus about Isaiah 52:14?
- Date: Wed, 14 Sep 2011 17:25:15 -0700
Kenneth:
On Wed, Sep 14, 2011 at 5:41 AM, kenneth greifer <greifer AT hotmail.com>wrote:
>
> University scholars have debated the meaning of Isaiah 52:14 for many
> years, but if you look through all of their books and journals, you will
> never see the correct translation.
>
Hey, that’s my line on some of the other verses I brought up! ;-)
>
> Usually, Isaiah 52:14 is translated as "like multitudes were shocked about
> you (Israel?), so is marred (hophal) from a man his form and from sons of
> man his image, thus he will sprinkle (he will startle) many nations."
>
> I think it could say "like multitudes were shocked about you (Israel?), so
> is a destroyer (one caused to destroy) (hiphil or hophal), from a man his
> form and from sons of man his image, thus he will sprinkle (he will cause to
> sprinkle) many nations."
>
Problem, here we have an example of a comparative (used in a way that is not
common in English) where the syntax indicates that the participle indicates
not an actor, but a state or status of the subject. I recognize this as a
pual participle, though an argument can be made that this is a hophal
participle “caused to be ruined”.
As for the “sprinkling”, the only way I can make sense of it is to recognize
it as a reference to the New Testament instituting of baptism.
>
> Isaiah 63 says that G-d will be shocked that there is no man to help, and
> in the form of a man, He will trample the nations and sprinkle their blood
> on His clothing.
>
This is collapsing contexts.
>
> Most scholars say "marred" in Isaiah 52:14 is the hophal, and my
> translation is technically the hophal form of the verb, so this is an
> example of how university scholars have overlooked a possible translation
> that fits the rest of Isaiah with pinpoint accuracy. Jeremiah 22:7 might
> also be the hiphil (without the yud) or hophal form of the verb "destroyers"
> or "ones caused to destroy."
>
> The scholarly consensus is that the verb is hophal, and since my
> translation uses the hophal, my idea must be the scholarly consensus too.
>
Don’t pull a Jim Stinehart on us. ;-)
>
> Kenneth Greifer
>
> (I hope you all like my new attempt to imitate a style that gets answers).
>
Heh heh heh heh as long as you use it only once.
Karl W. Randolph.
-
[b-hebrew] What is the scholarly consensus about Isaiah 52:14?,
kenneth greifer, 09/14/2011
-
Re: [b-hebrew] What is the scholarly consensus about Isaiah 52:14?,
K Randolph, 09/14/2011
-
Re: [b-hebrew] What is the scholarly consensus about Isaiah 52:14?,
kenneth greifer, 09/14/2011
- Re: [b-hebrew] What is the scholarly consensus about Isaiah 52:14?, K Randolph, 09/14/2011
-
Re: [b-hebrew] What is the scholarly consensus about Isaiah 52:14?,
kenneth greifer, 09/14/2011
-
Re: [b-hebrew] What is the scholarly consensus about Isaiah 52:14?,
K Randolph, 09/14/2011
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