Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

 (Kevin Buchs)

> It seems to me that there are many *secrets *of the Holladay lexicon and
> other lexicons which are not documented. Perhaps you can help me with these
> questions. Reference the entry for nathan (NFTAN), in the 1988 edition
> (13th
> impression) on page 249. In the grammatical forms section (preceding
> definition) there are entries for imperfects (impf.). The second one is
> YIT.EN- . Does the ending meqqeph indicate that this is a form that only
> appears with object suffixes? Additionally, I find myself asking regularly
> if the listed grammatical forms are intended to be the exhaustive list of
> Hebrew Bible uses or is it only a list of non-regular forms, which cannot
> be
> determined from my beginning text book (e.g. Seow).
>
> (Pere Porta)

1- The, so to say, usual form of the verb you mention is with vowel tsere:
look for instance at Ruth 1:9 or at Pr 29:17.
But whenever it is followed by maqqeph -and thus by another word-  then the
vowel is segol and not tsere: look at Ecc 6:2 or at 1K 2:17.

2. The maqqeph indicates that another word follows after it, making a group
that is uttered and considered together, as Peter Tomasek said in his mail.
This second word can be a pronoun or not: in Ecc 6:2 and 1K 2:17 it is a
pronoun (but with preposition lamed); but in Job 36:31 it is followed by the
noun: )OKEL Similarly could be said of Jb 37:10.


Hearty,

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)



> Thank you.
> Kevin Buchs
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-- 
Pere Porta