Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

What does the meteg add to the word RA$EYHEM in 2K 10:7 compared with the
lack of dagesh in the same word in 1Ch 12:33?

What is the purpose of the meteg in 2K 10:7?

Kind regards

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)

2011/6/29 <DrJDPrice AT aol.com>

> Rivka Sherman-Gold asked:
>
>
> <<
> Hello Daniel and Ari,
>
> Are you able to search for a  meteg?
>
> I'm interested in knowing whether there are any incidents of  RASHIM
> (=heads) or RASHEI (=heads of) with a meteg under Reish.
>
> Also the  reverse (if it's doable), whether every inflection of Rashim
> where the stress is  on the last syllable (e.g. Rasheikhem,, Rasheihem) has
> a
> meteg under REISH.
>
> Many thanks,
>
> Rivka Sherman-Gold
> >>
>
>
> There are 3 places where metheg occurs with the above  forms:
> 2 Kings 10:7
> Psalm 24:7, 9
>
> James D. Price
> ==============================
>
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-- 
Pere Porta