Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Yigal Levin <Yigal.Levin AT biu.ac.il>]

Literally, yes. But not "sacrifice" in the regular sense. Many of the
medieval commentators such as Rashi, Nahmanides and so on, assume it to
refer to people who had been sentenced to death by the court, who cannot be
redeemed by payment. Jacob Milgrom, in his Anchor Bible commentary,
basically says the same, pointing out that "Mot Yumat" always refers to
death by the court for a capital transgression. 

Yigal Levin

-----Original Message-----
From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of K Randolph
Sent: Monday, June 06, 2011 5:50 PM
To: B-Hebrew
Subject: [b-hebrew] Does the consecrated person die?

Dear B-Hebrew Haburim:

This is a verse that has puzzled me for some time, Leviticus 27:29. In the
context, it appears that the consecrated person is to be executed, i.e.
human sacrifice.

What say ye?

Karl W. Randolph.
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