Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Andronic Khandjani <andronicusmy AT gmail.com>]

It is difficult because it is not an old Persian word but an Avestan one.
Old Persian and Avestan belong to same family as English and German but they
are not the same.

Avestan and East Iranian language was used between 10th and 7th centuries
BC. The Avesta was written in cuneiform or Aramaic in 6th century, when
Avestan was not more a spoken language. There are a lof of Semitic
loan-words in Avesta, it may suggest important contact between Eastern Iran
(Khorassan, Afghanistan, Tajikistan) and Semitic world. The word pardesu is
attested in Akkadian (I have not more information about that).

Unfortunately, we have not enough information about that period but at least
we know that first Iranian speakers worked for Elamites and Babylonian
rulers. Before the Neo-Babylonian empire Persian soldiers were serving in
Phoenicia according Ezekiel(Eze 27:10).

As Iranian family includes Thracians or Tarik (Bulgaria), Scythes( Sagzi)
who spoke an eastern Iranian language,  it is possible that Iranian workers
imported the word in Syria and Mesopotamia. It is a matter of study.
















2011/3/11 David Kolinsky <yishalom AT sbcglobal.net>

> Dear list,
>
> Does anyone have any info with regard to when the Persian cognate of
> PaRDaeS first appeared in written form ie.Persian texts?
>
>
> David Kolinsky
> Monterey CA
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