Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Garth Grenache <garthgrenache AT hotmail.com>]

Dear Yitzhak and all,

Why is it that the Tiberian points indicate that YRWShLM should be pronounced 
Yerushalayim?

Where is the Y in -La(y)iM?

When a mater is not included we say the spelling is 'defective'.

But a consonantal 'y' is not a mater, is it?

So as the city name is spelled YRWShLM mostly, and only rarely in the later 
works, YRWShLYM, I suggest that the Y is an added mater for long 'e' (found 
in Gk LXX/NT and Aramaic spellings), which in Tiberian Hebrew became 
interpreted as consonantal, and perhaps as part of a dual ending?

What do you think, and what evidence do you have?

How do the non-Tiberian pointing traditions (e.g. Babylonian, Palestinian) 
point this important name?

Garth Grenache,
Australia.
                                          
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