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  • From: Garth Grenache <garthgrenache AT hotmail.com>
  • To: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] Yerushalayim, you say? Really?
  • Date: Tue, 6 Jul 2010 01:04:23 +1000



Dear Yitzhak and all,

Why is it that the Tiberian points indicate that YRWShLM should be pronounced
Yerushalayim?

Where is the Y in -La(y)iM?

When a mater is not included we say the spelling is 'defective'.

But a consonantal 'y' is not a mater, is it?

So as the city name is spelled YRWShLM mostly, and only rarely in the later
works, YRWShLYM, I suggest that the Y is an added mater for long 'e' (found
in Gk LXX/NT and Aramaic spellings), which in Tiberian Hebrew became
interpreted as consonantal, and perhaps as part of a dual ending?

What do you think, and what evidence do you have?

How do the non-Tiberian pointing traditions (e.g. Babylonian, Palestinian)
point this important name?

Garth Grenache,
Australia.

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